Certain columnists in certain media are trying to downplay the Robocalls/Robocon controversy by claiming that certain ridings where robo-calls were alleged to have been showed increased voter turnout; ergo, voter suppression didn’t happen or robo-calls didn’t work.
The latter argument – where it’s claimed the alleged vote suppression robocalls didn’t work is beside the point; an attempted robbery that fails is still a crime. That argument also fails to take into account that there would have been an attempt to meet two goals; get their own supporters out to the polls in increased numbers, while simultaneously trying to suppress the vote of the other parties.
Therefore, it’s entirely plausible and reasonable for turnout in a riding targets by robocalls to increase – where the party got its own supporters out in greater numbers – and have voter suppression occurring of the other parties candidates.
I would have thought that should have been obvious… but apparently not.